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Finance Lessons

Bonds & Rates

Duration: How Much Bonds Move

Duration measures how much a bond's price moves when yields change. Macaulay duration as the cash-flow balance point, modified duration, the %ΔPrice ≈ −ModDur × Δyield rule, and the four drivers — worked numbers and a live see-saw.

9 min Updated Jun 2, 2026

You already know bonds move opposite to yields: when market interest rates rise, the price of a bond you’re holding falls. But by how much? Two bonds can both drop when rates climb — one barely flinches, the other craters. The single number that tells you which is which is called duration, and despite being quoted in years it’s really a measure of price sensitivity. It’s the bond market’s answer to “how hard will this thing whip around when rates move?” — and once you can read it, you can size up a bond’s risk at a glance. Let’s find the balance point.

Duration as the balance point of your cash flows

Picture a bond’s cash flows laid out on a see-saw. The horizontal plank is time, running from today out to maturity. At each date the bond pays you something — a small coupon (the periodic interest payment) here, another coupon there, and at the very end the big lump of your face value (the principal repaid at maturity) plus the final coupon. Stack a weight at each payment date sized by how valuable that payment is today. Where does the plank balance? That balance point is the Macaulay duration.

Formally, Macaulay duration is the present-value-weighted average time, in years, until you receive the bond’s cash flows. Each future payment is discounted back to its present value (what it’s worth today), those present values become the weights, and you take the weighted-average of the payment times:

DMac=ttwt,wt=PV of cash flow at time ttotal priceD_{\text{Mac}} = \sum_{t} t \cdot w_t, \qquad w_t = \frac{\text{PV of cash flow at time } t}{\text{total price}}

The weights wtw_t add up to 1 (they’re shares of the bond’s total value), so the result lands somewhere between today and maturity — exactly where the cash-flow see-saw balances.

Before you read — take a guess

Guess before reading: two bonds both mature in 10 years, but one pays fat coupons every year and the other pays no coupons at all (everything at the end). Which one's price moves MORE when interest rates change?

The big idea hiding in that pretest: a bond that pays you sooner has a shorter duration, because early cash flows tug the balance point left. Maturity is just the latest possible date; duration is the average date your money actually shows up, weighted by value.

When it matters

Whenever you need to compare the risk of two bonds with different coupons or maturities, duration — not maturity — is the honest yardstick. A 30-year bond with huge coupons can have a shorter duration (and so less rate risk) than a 15-year zero-coupon bond. If you ranked them by maturity you’d get the risk ordering backwards.

Modified duration: turning years into a percent

Macaulay duration is a lovely “average time,” but you can’t use a number in years to predict a price move directly. You need to convert it into a sensitivity. The analogy: Macaulay duration is the length of the wrench; modified duration is how much torque one turn of the rate dial actually applies.

Modified duration rescales Macaulay duration by the per-period yield, and it’s the number that actually predicts price moves:

Dmod=DMac1+y/nD_{\text{mod}} = \frac{D_{\text{Mac}}}{1 + y/n}

where yy is the annual yield (the bond’s market return) and nn is the number of coupon payments per year. The division shrinks it slightly below the Macaulay figure. Then comes the rule that makes the whole lesson worth it:

%ΔPriceDmod×Δy\%\Delta\text{Price} \approx -D_{\text{mod}} \times \Delta y

Read it out loud: the percentage change in price is roughly minus the modified duration times the change in yield. The minus sign is the price-yield seesaw (rates up, price down). The size of the move is the modified duration.

Worked example — modified duration 7

Suppose a bond has a modified duration of 7. Yields jump by 1 percentage point, so Δy=0.01\Delta y = 0.01:

%ΔPrice7×0.01=0.07=7%\%\Delta\text{Price} \approx -7 \times 0.01 = -0.07 = -7\%

The price falls about 7%. On a $1,000 bond that’s a drop of roughly $70 (that’s 0.07×10000.07 \times 1000), leaving you near $930. Flip the move — yields fall 1% — and the price rises about 7%, to roughly $1,070. A duration of 7 means “expect about 7% of price movement for every 1% the yield moves.” That’s the entire skill: read the duration, multiply by the rate move, get the price hit.

Warning:

Quoted in years, used as a percent — and only a straight line

Two traps live in one number. First, duration is quoted in years but you use it as a percent sensitivity: a “duration of 7” doesn’t mean 7 years of anything you’ll feel — it means roughly 7% price move per 1% yield move. Second, the rule %ΔPDmodΔy\%\Delta P \approx -D_{\text{mod}}\,\Delta y is a straight-line (linear) approximation. It’s accurate for small yield moves and gets sloppy for big ones, because the real price-yield curve bends. Predict a 7% drop for a +1% move and you’ll be close; predict a 35% drop for a +5% move and reality will be kinder than your estimate. That curvature has its own name — convexity — and it’s the next lesson.

When it matters

Modified duration is what every bond desk actually quotes, because it answers the only question a holder cares about: if rates move, how much do I make or lose? Use it for small, realistic rate moves (a quarter-point, a half-point, a point). For large shocks, treat it as a first guess that overstates the loss and understates the gain — and reach for convexity.

Fill in the blanks about the two durations and the rule.

Pick the right option for each blank, then check.

duration is the present-value-weighted average time until you get a bond's cash flows. Dividing it by (1 + y/n) gives duration, the number that predicts price moves. The rule says the percent change in price is approximately the modified duration times the change in yield. So a bond with modified duration 7 loses about when yields rise 1%. This rule is a — best for rate moves.

Working it out: a 3-year, 5% bond, step by step

Time to actually grind the see-saw arithmetic. Take a tiny bond so every number is visible: face value $100, a 5% annual coupon (so $5 each year), 3 years to maturity, and a market yield of 5%. Because the coupon rate equals the yield, this bond is priced exactly at par — $100 — which keeps the bookkeeping clean.

Each year’s cash flow gets discounted by (1.05)t(1.05)^t to its present value, each present value becomes a weight wt=PV/100w_t = \text{PV} / 100, and we sum twtt \cdot w_t:

Year ttCash flowPV = CF / 1.05t1.05^tWeight wtw_t = PV / 100twtt \cdot w_t
1$54.7620.047620.04762
2$54.5350.045350.09070
3$10590.7030.907032.72109
Sum100.0001.000002.859

The present values total $100 (the price — good, the math is consistent), the weights total 1, and the weighted-time column sums to about 2.86 years. So:

DMac2.86 yearsD_{\text{Mac}} \approx 2.86 \text{ years}

Notice it’s less than the 3-year maturity — the two early $5 coupons drag the balance point left of the final payment, but only a little, because that year-3 cash flow (coupon + face) carries over 90% of the weight. Now convert to modified duration with y=0.05y = 0.05 and n=1n = 1:

Dmod=2.861+0.05/1=2.861.052.72D_{\text{mod}} = \frac{2.86}{1 + 0.05/1} = \frac{2.86}{1.05} \approx 2.72

And put it to work. If yields rise from 5% to 6% (Δy=0.01\Delta y = 0.01):

%ΔPrice2.72×0.01=2.72%\%\Delta\text{Price} \approx -2.72 \times 0.01 = -2.72\%

The $100 bond should fall to about $97.28. (Discount the real cash flows at 6% and you’d get $97.33 — the straight-line estimate is off by a nickel, exactly the small-move accuracy we promised.)

Sort each quantity into the row of the duration calculation it belongs to.

Place each item in the right group.

  • 90.70 — today's worth of the year-3 payment
  • 0.907 — the year-3 payment's share of total value
  • $5 coupon received in year 1
  • 2.72 — what you multiply a yield change by
  • $105 (coupon + face) received in year 3
  • 2.86 years — the balance point of the see-saw

The four drivers — what lengthens and shortens duration

Duration isn’t a mystery dial; four levers move it in predictable directions. Here’s the whole cause-and-effect map in one table, then we’ll feel each one on the see-saw.

LeverChangeEffect on durationWhy
CouponHigher couponShortensMore value arrives early; balance point slides left
CouponZero couponLongest (= maturity)All value sits at the end; balance point is at maturity
MaturityLonger maturityLengthensThe final lump sits further out
YieldLower yieldLengthensDistant cash flows are discounted less, so they weigh more

The headline cases:

  • A zero-coupon bond has duration equal to its maturity. One cash flow, at the end — the see-saw has a single weight, so it balances right under that weight. A 10-year zero has a Macaulay duration of exactly 10 years. It’s the most rate-sensitive bond of its maturity, because nothing arrives early to soften the blow.
  • A higher coupon shortens duration. Fat coupons deliver more cash up front, pulling the balance point toward today. Same maturity, more coupon, shorter duration, less price sensitivity.
  • A longer maturity lengthens duration — the giant final face-value payment sits further out, pulling the balance point right.
  • A lower yield lengthens duration. Lower discounting means far-off cash flows lose less value, so they carry more weight, tugging the balance point outward.

Drag the sliders below. Crank the coupon up and watch the triangle (the balance point) slide left as duration shortens; drop the coupon toward zero and watch it slide all the way out to maturity. Push maturity out or pull the yield down and the balance point drifts right:

Duration is the balance pointMacaulay duration: 7.99 yr
Present value of each cash flowMacaulay duration
02357810
Macaulay duration
7.99 yr
Modified duration
7.79 yr
Price change per +1% yield
-7.79%

Each bar is the present value of a cash flow; the triangle sits where they balance. A bigger coupon front-loads the weight, so the fulcrum slides left and duration shortens. A zero-coupon bond balances right at maturity.

Warning:

Don't confuse maturity with duration

Maturity is when the bond ends; duration is the average time your money actually arrives, weighted by value — and it’s duration that governs price risk. A 30-year bond paying rich coupons can have a shorter duration (less rate risk) than a 15-year zero-coupon bond. Rank bonds by maturity and you can get the risk ordering exactly backwards. The only case where the two numbers coincide is the zero-coupon bond.

When it matters

These drivers are how you engineer rate risk. Scared of rising rates? Shorten duration — hold shorter maturities or higher coupons. Betting rates will fall and want to maximize the price pop? Lengthen duration — long maturities, low or zero coupons. Pension funds and insurers go further and match the duration of their bonds to the duration of their future payouts, so a rate move hits both sides equally and cancels out.

Match each term or change to what it means for duration.

Pick a term, then click its definition.

Putting it together

One number — duration — collapses a bond’s coupons, maturity and yield into a single “how much will this move?” Chunk the whole idea:

Big picture

Duration

  • Duration
    • Macaulay — the balance point
      • PV-weighted average time, in years
      • D = Σ t · wₜ, where wₜ = PV / price
      • Sits between today and maturity
    • Modified — the sensitivity
      • Dmod = Dmac / (1 + y/n)
      • %ΔPrice ≈ −Dmod × Δyield
      • ModDur 7, +1% yield → about −7%
    • The four drivers
      • Zero coupon → duration = maturity
      • Higher coupon → shorter
      • Longer maturity → longer
      • Lower yield → longer
    • The fine print
      • Quoted in years, used as a percent
      • Straight-line approximation only
      • Big moves need convexity (next lesson)
Duration as the balance point of a bond's cash flows (Macaulay), rescaled into a price-sensitivity number (modified), governed by four drivers and used through the linear %ΔPrice rule.

A mixed recap pulling from everything above:

Question 1 of 60 correct

What does Macaulay duration measure?

Check your answer to continue.

Key Takeaways

Success:

What to remember

  • Duration measures price sensitivity to yield changes — how much a bond’s price moves when interest rates move. It’s the bond’s risk-to-rates dial.
  • Macaulay duration is the present-value-weighted average time (in years) until you receive the cash flows — the balance point of the cash-flow see-saw: DMac=ttwtD_{\text{Mac}} = \sum_t t \cdot w_t.
  • Modified duration = DMac/(1+y/n)D_{\text{Mac}} / (1 + y/n), and it powers the key rule: %ΔPriceDmod×Δy\%\Delta\text{Price} \approx -D_{\text{mod}} \times \Delta y. A modified duration of 7 means about a 7% price move per 1% yield move — roughly $70 on a $1,000 bond.
  • Four drivers: a zero-coupon bond has duration equal to its maturity; a higher coupon shortens it; a longer maturity lengthens it; a lower yield lengthens it.
  • Two cautions: duration is quoted in years but used as a percent, and the rule is a straight-line approximation — accurate for small rate moves, increasingly off for large ones. That curvature is convexity, the next lesson.

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